,
in a simple model this holds of income is either profits or wages and each class is distinct
and if wages every period are always spent in full the next period
in a simple model this holds of income is either profits or wages and each class is distinct
and if wages every period are always spent in full the next period
P(t) => C( t + 1) + I( t +1)
OR
C (t) + I (t)=> P (t+1)
"Now, it is clear that capitalists may decide to consume and to invest more in a given period than in the preceding one, but they cannot decide to earn more."
yes they can spended their income or les then their income
" therefore, their investment and consumption decisions which determine profits, and not vice versa”.[
voila sez M Kalecki
if so consider C (T)
( capitalist class spending on household products)
lets hold C constant from t to t+1
then P in (t +1 ) is a function of I(t)
next period profits are a function of this period I
generalize some
let C vary over T
using
a fixed part A
and some fraction q of P
ie
BRING back in I
if
I = P -(A +q.P)
then
P = I + (A + q.P)
or
in a steady state path:
***
okay can we use this to claim to push for higher effective demand along the following lines ?( capitalist class spending on household products)
lets hold C constant from t to t+1
then P in (t +1 ) is a function of I(t)
next period profits are a function of this period I
generalize some
let C vary over T
using
a fixed part A
and some fraction q of P
ie
BRING back in I
if
I = P -(A +q.P)
then
P = I + (A + q.P)
or
in a steady state path:
***
can we force up investment ? in a liquidy trap no
so enter public spending G and is offset taxes on profits T
forget the taxes on wages hey say they don't exist
all taxes are on profits
if G-T this period t is larger then last period P(t-1) - ( I (t) + C(t) )
then this period P will be larger then if G-T equals zero
or
why would corporate elites now prefer stagnation in the oecd
*** P=I + A +q.P
P - q.P =I + A
P(1-q) = A+I
P=A +I/1- q