Sunday, April 29, 2012

toy thinking : considering the equation below...does the volume of investment determine profits or vica versa ?

 \textstyle P=C_P+I,

in a simple model this holds  of income is either profits or wages and each class is distinct
and if wages every period are always spent in full  the next  period


P(t) => C( t + 1) + I( t +1)
OR
C (t) + I (t)=> P (t+1)

“The answer to this question depends on which of these items is directly subject to the decisions of capitalists. "

"Now, it is clear that capitalists may decide to consume and to invest more in a given period than in the preceding one, but they cannot decide to earn more."
yes they can spended their income or les then their income


" therefore, their investment and consumption decisions which determine profits, and not vice versa”.[


voila sez  M Kalecki
if so consider C (T)
( capitalist class spending on household products)

lets hold C constant from t to t+1

then P in (t +1 ) is a function of I(t)
next period profits are a function of  this period I

generalize some

let C vary over T
using
a fixed part A
  and some fraction  q of P
ie
 \textstyle C_P=A+q \cdot P\,\

BRING back in I
if
I = P -(A +q.P)
then
P = I + (A + q.P)
or
in a steady state path:

 \textstyle P= \frac{A+I}{1-q} \,\  ***

okay can we use this to claim to push for higher  effective demand  along the following  lines ?
can we force up investment  ?  in a liquidy trap no

so enter public spending G  and  is offset taxes on profits T
forget the taxes on wages  hey say they don't exist
all  taxes are on profits

                                                     if G-T this period t is  larger then last period  P(t-1) - ( I  (t) + C(t) )
then this period P will be larger then if G-T equals zero

or
why would corporate elites now prefer stagnation in the oecd


*** P=I + A +q.P

      
 P - q.P =I + A

P(1-q) = A+I

P=A +I/1- q